If the IHRA definition is somewhat of a bible, doesn’t it require Talmudic studies ?
For instance, if a non-Israeli Jew is “drawing comparisons of contemporary Israeli policy to that of the Nazis”, does excluding said Jew from “polite society” for holding that opinion amount to expecting every Jew to have a standardized opinion compatible with Israeli policy, thus indirectly “holding Jews collectively responsible for actions of the state of Israel” ?
And if said Jew is a ninety-year-old Hurban–survivor, does bullying him for expressing that opinion equal “calling for, aiding, or justifying the killing or harming of Jews in the name of a radical ideology or an extremist view of religion” ?…
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